It files for May, 2009

The verb became meat, the verb was with God… Juan 1:1 WHICH REALLY SAYS

“In the principle it was the Verb, and the Verb was with God, and the Verb was God.

Juan 1:14 -

“And that one Verb was made meat, and lived between us (and we saw its glory, glory like of the unigénito of the Father), plenty of grace and really�.

Juan 1:1

Brothers… they are familiarized with the optical illusions?  Cuàndo one CREATES to see something that in fact is not and after one second watched account occurs that what saw or read obeys to previous psychological agreements?   Many people when reading both texts above-mentioned read the following one:

Juan 1:1:  “In the principle Jesus Christ existia, and Jesus Christ was with God and Jesus Christ was God�

Juan 1:14: “And Jesus Christ became meat and lived between us�

But that IS NOT WHAT the BIBLE SAYS. We are going to read LITERALLY, VERY TEXTUALLY, to the bread bread and to the wine it came, which SAYS the BIBLE in chapter 1 of Juan without interpreting nothing: leaving Bible it says it what says:

“The VERB (not I, not a lion, not an automobile, nonJesus Christ: The VERB) was with God and the Verb (not a ewe, not the love, not a book: The VERB) was God�

It is clear what the Bible says? The Bible says that the VERB or in other translations the WORD was with God. With looking for in a dictionary the meaning of VERB or WORD we will notice that it is a noun, not an own name. We will notice that he is a SOMETHING and not SOMEBODY.  This study is going to eliminate the conditional reflection to read Juan 1 like the description of a celestial being who transforms into a being of meat and bones (something that Juan 1 DOES NOT SAY absolutely) and is going to make clear what Juan really wrote: that the VERB, WORD, EXPRESSION DE GOD, WILL, were represented by a human being called Jesus de Nazareth that was born here like anyone from us in the Earth.

MEAT BECAME….

The people insist on who Jesus became meat, on which Jesus existed in the principle. But we read Juan 1:1 again and… oh surprise! It does not say “In the Jesus principle was, and Jesus was with God, and Jesus was God�. No.

It says that SOMETHING call LOGO (translated VERB in some versions, or WORD in others) was with God.

At no moment it says that VERB is Jesus. At no moment it says that VERB and JESUS are synonymous. The word LOGO that is used in Greek the original one is not masculine. She is NEUTRAL. And it is why some bibles translate the VERB like the WORD. The translation to the English of Tyndale even calls to verb IT (that) when saying “it was with God� and “there am no was with God�.

If leyeramos literally Juan 1:1 which we read is that, the WORD exactly that, the WORD, was in the PRINCIPLE with God. If we go at the outset that it is Genesis 1…. we found to Jesus with God?  But we did not find that the WORD (exactly what means to the word the WORD) was with God since whenever God pronounced a word, something was created. God said “Is Light� and was Light.  What is but exactly that word?

So LOGO is a CONCEPT not a person. That concept “becomes meat� at the moment in which was born Jesus it does not imply that the concept and Jesus are the same. We see examples. we can say the same of other concepts:

“In the principle the love was, and the love was with God and the love was God. And the love became meat when Jesus was born�

“In the principle justice was, and justice was with God and justice was God. And justice became meat when Jesus was born�

If I wrote that, would be correct. AND NOBODY would understand that the LOVE or JUSTICE is same Jesus Christ. Why when I say the same of the LOGO she confuses it to people with Jesus as if outside a person? Because they do not take the literal meaning from LOGO that is WORD.  The WORD is a thing, a concept a SOMETHING, not a person.  And many texts of the Bible clarify what is exactly the WORD or the LOGO:


Gene 15:1 After these things came the word from Jehovah to Abram in vision, saying: - Nonsubjects, Abram. I am your I shield, and your award will be very great.

It means that Jesus came to Abraham in a vision? No. It means that the Word of God, that is its power and wisdom came in a vision.

1Reyes Then 17:8 the word of Jehovah came to Elías saying

It means that Jesus came to Elias? No. The WORD is that: it is the WORD is not a person but it is spoken as if outside a person, like whom it comes to Elias.

Jer 5:13 the prophets will be turned into wind, since the word is not in them. Thus he has himself to do with them.�

He means that Jesus was not with them? No, he means that the WISDOM of God was not with them.


Mic 4:2 Many nations will come and say: “You come, we raise the mount of Jehovah and the house of the God de Jacob, so that he teaches his ways to us, and we walk by their footpaths.� Because Sion it will leave the law, and of Jerusalem the word of Jehovah.

Jerusalem will leave Jesus? No, but the wisdom of Jehovah.

ROM 9:28 Because the Gentleman will execute his word soon and with vigor on the Earth.

Again we see that the WORD is a concept, in this case the power of God in its judgment.


Efesios 6:17 You also take the helmet from the salvation and the sword of the Spirit, who is the word of God,

Here it says that the spirit, brings back to consciousness and to be able of God is the WORD.

Filipenses 2:16 retaining the life word. Thus I will be able to gloriar myself in the day of Christ of which I have not run nor I have worked in vain.

Here the WORD talks about the GOSPEL.

Heb 1:3 is the brilliance of its glory and the exact expression of its nature, that sustains all the things with the word of its power. And when it had made the purification of our sins, one sat down to the right hand of the Majesty in the heights.

Here it says clearly that the WORD is the power of God that uses Jesus. As the word could be the same if it says that it sustains the things WITH the WORD?

Heb 11:3 By the faith we include/understand that the universe was constituted by the word of God, so that what sees it was done than it was not seen.

Here we see clearly that the WORD is the power of God and its creative wisdom. Always the same concept: the WORD is the power and wisdom of God. Never a person, never says that the WORD is JESUS.

2Pe 3:5 Then, through their own will happens through high this: that by the word of God the skies, and the Earth that arose from the water and were seated in the middle of agua.2Pe 3:7 But by the same word, the skies and the Earth existed from old times that now exist are reserved for the fire, kept until the day of the judgment and the destruction of the impíos men.

It speaks of a person or a concept? it speaks of a concept: the power and the wisdom of God that I create the universe and that will execute judgment. That is the WORD or LOGO.

Very many translations translate Juan 1 like the WORD. Some use the VERB, creating confusion since the noun LOGO is not masculine. But in this case we read all the sites where it appears the VERB and we will see that never it says that he is Jesus:

Juan 1:14 and the Verb became meat and lived between us, and we contemplated his glory, like the glory of the unigénito of the Father, plenty of grace and really.

He says there that Jesus was the Verb? No, but the VERB or WORD became meat because it was in Jesus, as there was been in the old prophets exceeds who venia the verb. The LOVE BECAME MEAT when nacio Jesus. The WISDOM BECAME MEAT when nacio Jesus. But this does not mean that the LOVE and the WISDOM are names that Jesus tapeworm in the sky before being born.

1Jn 1:1 Which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we contemplated and felt our hands concerning the Verb of life

The own Juan clarifies that the VERB is the ETERNAL LIFE, the plan of God carried out by means of Jesus. It is a concept.

Rev 19:13 is dressed clothes dyed in blood, and its name is called the VERB DE GOD.

It is certain that to Jesus HIM Llama the VERB DE GOD… and this text also is bad employee not to read what says exactly. TO BE CALLED is not just like TO BE.  Jesus is called the LEON OF the JUDA TRIBE. It is a lion? Jesus is called the LAMB. It is a lamb? No, and by the same the VERB DE GOD is called, since the wisdom and power of God dwell in him. The VERB became meat in him when it was born, is the same incarnation of the power and the wisdom of God as when he is born your son is the incarnation of the love that your you have your woman to him. VERB is a concept and there is no a single text in all the Bible that shows that the WORD or the VERB is a person.

In Proverbs we have to the LOGO or called WORD the WISDOM and notice as is personified it next to other attributes of God. The Jewish and Christian concept of the WISDOM and the LOGO are similar: LOGO or WISDOM is the power of God, their will, is a concept related to that. it is when God says something and it is fulfilled.

Pro 8:1 Perhaps it does not call the wisdom, and it raises his voice the understanding?
Pro 8:12 “I, the wisdom, habit with the sagacidad, and are with the knowledge of discretion.

Clear that the SAGACIDAD and the KNOWLEDGE are not people. They are concepts that live with the wisdom, personified in the book of Proverbs and that is just like the LOGO del that speaks to Juan 1:1. We know as it? Because Proverbs say that the WISDOM was in the principle with God:

Pro 8:22 “Jehovah created to me as its masterpiece, before its older facts.
Pro 8:23 From the eternity I had the principality, from the beginning, before the Earth.
Pro 8:24 I was born before the oceans existed, before the loaded water springs existed.

Of poetic way east text is similar to Juan 1:1: in the principle, the first that dwelled with God and was God was its power, its will. ITS WORD, its WISDOM. That it dwelled next to his SAGACIDAD and their KNOWLEDGE. Nothing of these is people, but attributes of God.

Now that leimos exactly what the Bible says that is the WORD, the VERB, the LOGO, we read Juan understanding its meaning parrafraseando it according to the concept:

Joh 1:1 In the principle was EXPRESSED (the logo), and the EXPRESSED thing (logo) was with God, and the EXPRESSED thing was God.
Joh 1:2 THIS (neutral and nonmasculine pronoun) was in the principle with God.
Joh 1:3 All the things were done by means of THIS, and without THIS nothing was done than it has been done.
Joh 1:4 In THIS was the life, and the life was the light of the men.
Joh 1:5 the light shines in the darknesses, and the darknesses did not overcome it.
Joh 1:6 Was a man, sent by God, that was called Juan.
Joh 1:7 the wine like testimony, in order to give testimony of the light, so that all believed by means of him.
Joh 1:8 was not he it light, but it came to give testimony of the light. (we see here that in fact Jesus is called the LIGHT. certain? not the VERB)
Joh 1:9 That one was the true light that illuminates all man who comes to the world.
Joh 1:10 In the world was, and the world was done by means of him, but the world did not know him.
Joh 1:11 To his wine, but theirs did not receive to him.
Joh 1:12 But to which they received to him, to that they create in his name, gave them right of being made children of God,
Joh 1:13 which were born not from blood, neither of the will of the meat, nor of the will of man, but of God.
Joh 1:14 AND the EXPRESSED thing became meat and lived between us (by means of Jesus Christ), and we contemplated its glory (the one of the expression of God in Jesus), like the glory of the unigénito of the Father, plenty of grace and really.

That is the sense of Juan in the context of the rest of the Bible. We cannot take a single text and twist the rest of the writing. Nowhere it says that the VERB is a person.

To the verb she is not a person
B Jesus is a person
ERGO: Jesus is not the verb

It is logical simple. If the verb were Jesus, then Jesus did not exist either consciously before being born then in all the Bible the WORD or VERB of God never is a person but a concept.

Some translations handle Juan 1,1 of clear way but:

Joh 1:1 In the principle was the Word,
and the Word was before God,
and the Word was God.
Joh 1:2 She was before God in the principle.
Joh 1:3 By Her became everything,
and nothing got to be without Her.
What it was done
Joh 1:4 had life in her,
and for the men the life was light.
Joh 1:5 the light shines in the darknesses,
and the darknesses did not receive it.
Joh 1:6 Wine a man, sent by God, that was called Juan.
Joh 1:7 Wine to give testimony, like witness of the light,
so that all believed by him.
Joh 1:8 Although not outside he it light, was called on to give testimony to him of the light.
Joh 1:9 She was the true light,
the light that illuminates all man,
and it arrived at the world.
Joh 1:10 Already was in the world,
this world that became by Her, or by, (note how behaved shamelessly they add the phrase to him OR BY, because but it would be clear that the WORD is not Jesus, since is a FEMININE word)
this world that did not receive it.
Joh 1:11 Wine to its own house,
and theirs did not receive it; �
Joh 1:12 but to they received which it
it gave capacity them to be children of God.
When believing in its Name
Joh 1:13 has been born,
not of blood some, nor by law of the meat,
nor by man will,
but they have been born from God.
Joh 1:14 and the Word became meat,
it put his store between us,
and we have seen its Gloria:
the Gloria who receives from the Father the Only child;
in him everything was loving gift and truth.

LATIN AMERICAN BIBLE 95

Joh 1:1 In the principle existed the Word and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Joh 1:2 She was in the principle with God.
Joh 1:3 Everything became by her and without her nothing became of whatever exists.

BIBLE DE JERUSALEM

Using the WORD that is feminine and the correct translation but of LOGO it is but clear that one does not talk about Jesus. When using the VERB forces the translation to the masculine one soon to establish that Jesus and the VERB is synonymous which simply is not what the text says.  The text says that the VERB became meat, not that Jesus became meat.  A concept was incarnated in a person represented who it.

That is my brother contribution: simply to look for in all the Bible the phrases the WORD, the VERB and to leave speak by itself insofar as it means. Nobody will be able to show a text that says that JESUS IS the VERB. Or that the VERB is a person, so Juan 1:1 is a beautiful poetry that he describes to us how the PLAN DE GOD who existed with from the beginning made REALITY (meat became) when Jesus was born to save to us.

Shalom

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Objective existence and subjective existence

The mothers love their children BEFORE BEING BORN… but they only exist for them, not consciously.

The mothers love their children BEFORE BEING BORN… but they only exist for them, not consciously.

The subjective existence is one of the truths but clear of the Bible and that does not understand east concept is not understanding then absolutely Biblical the Jewish and Christian theology.

Not to understand that for GOD certain things exist that in fact DO NOT EXIST objectively, or to put it another way, not to include that not only very many things but EVERYTHING what exists and existed sometimes it exists subjectively from the point of view of God, is not to know it.

We see a clear example of things that nonEXISTIAN like objects, but that IF THEY EXISTED in the mind of God:

Psalms 139:16
My embryo saw your eyes, and in your book those things that soon were formed, without lacking nor one of them were written all.

This text reflects one of the important aspects but of the Hebrew thought, that obvious is one of the amazing facets but of the personality of our God: YOU GO the THINGS THAT NOT YET ARE.

You go and knows the things that NOT YET HAVE BEEN FORMED, that is to say that DO NOT HAVE OBJECTIVE EXISTENCE. They only exist for him. The salmista, David, say that in the book of God (its Plan, its Verb, its Will) all the parts of their body were already written… that SOON WERE FORMED. It could not have a clear text but as far as seating that for God the things that not yet ARE, IF THEY ARE IT.

Romans 4:17

as he is written: “I have put to You by father of many nations�. And he is it in front of God, to that believed, which he gives life to deads and he calls the things that are not as if they were.

Again we see that it is an EXPLICIT Biblical EDUCATION that God, Father Llama TO the THINGS THAT ARE NOT, AS IF THEY WERE.

The own Jesus taught that God calls beings who ARE NOT, as if they were he used and it like argument in favor of the resurrection:


Lucas 20:38
because God is not dead God, but of alive, because for him all live.

He is interesting that the gospels of Marks and Mateo apply the argument simply saying that God is not dead God, but of alive. But it is Lucas that exactly explains the meaning of the expression: FOR HIM, (that is, FOR GOD) all of them live. The explanation is important. The deads DO NOT EXIST objectively. They rest, they sleep, they rest. THEY ONLY EXIST for God, in his mind, its memory. For GOD they are alive because it glides to revive them a day.

So again we see that the SUBJECTIVE existence is integral part of the Christian doctrine, and is essential to include/understand the Christian hope of the resurrection: if for God nonfueramos so real as if still vivieramos… how we could be safe of being revived? This taught Jesus to it in the text arrives mentioned, not I.

The human beings without objective existence, have had SUBJECTIVE existence in the mind of God, that is EXISTENCE FROM the POINT DE VISTA DE GOD. This it was the case of Jeremías:

Jeremías 1:5
“It trained Before you in the belly, I knew you, and before you were born, I sanctified to you, I gave by prophet the nations�.

God sanctified to Jeremías and it gave by prophet the nations BEFORE JEREM�AS EXISTED. Jeremías DID NOT EXIST BEFORE BEING BORN. To anybody it would be happened to him to say that Jeremías existed in the sky before being born. It is clear that this text is related to the SUBJECTIVE existence in the mind of God, that calls to the things that are not, as if they were it.

It is not the unique case: of the Christians it says:

Efesios 1:4
according to it chose to us in élantes of the foundation of the world, so that we were holy and without spot in front of him.

Nobody can deny the writing. Nobody can deny that God chose to us BEFORE the FOUNDATION OF the WORLD, before nacieramos, before existieramos. Anyone of us could say aloud:

“Father you loved to me before the foundation of the world�

And we would not be lying. I do not ask that they interpret. I only ask that they read and they think: if Efesios 1:4 is the Word of God, is clear that anyone of us could say:

“Father you loved to me before the foundation of the world�

Also it is clear that NO of us existed before being born objectively. Only in the mind and the plans of God. It would have to be strange to us since the son of God, the chosen one to be the Mesías would say the following thing?

Juan 17:24
� Father, those that you have given me, I want that where I am, also they are with me, so that they see my glory that you have given me, because you have loved to me from before the foundation of the world.

If somebody is going to use Juan 17:24 to affirm that Jesus existed consciously in skies before being born, then he will have to apply the same principle to the letter to the Efesios and also to affirm that ALL WE EXISTED BEFORE BEING BORN. In fact there are religions that do therefore it, like mormones who think that all the beings had conscious existence before being born. As we saw, he is not what the Bible teaches. The Bible standard that Jeremías, the Christians and JESUS CHRIST, all these beings had SUBJECTIVE EXISTENCE before being born. They only existed in the mind of God before being born.

to it is not necessary to exist so that God loves to us

b God loved Jesus before being born

ERGO: That Jesus will love Jesus before being born nontest that Jesus existed objectively before being born.

He is simple and clearly. And still more. Jesus says that to his HE LOVED IT Father him before the foundation of the world, never says that the MASTER TO the FATHER. What class of love would be that in which existing two beings, one son and another Father the love is unilateral both having the capacity to love? The certain thing is that Jesus never said to have loved the Father before being born. It never said to have thought. It never said to have done nothing before being born because OBJECTIVELY IT DID NOT EXIST. But it mentioned that God had loved to him and chosen ël, for which was not necessary that it existed. The love of God is by the beings who are and by that not yet they are. It explains another writing:

1 Pedro 1:20
It was destined from before the foundation of the world, but he has been declared lately by love of you.

Pedro taught clearly that, as the Christians, Jesus HAD BEEN DESTINED before being born, but that it had only pronounced, it had only gotten to exist after to be born. I like as they translate other versions this text:

This is something that God had decided to do from before creating the world, and Christ appeared in these last times for good of you. (Bible in simple Language)

Nothing that indicates an objective existence of Jesus before being born, rather a clear explanation that God calls to the things that are not as if they were it.

In fact that Jesus existed in the plan of God before being born, but not consciously it is clear in this text:

8Y all that dwell in the Earth adored to him, whose names are not written in the book of the life of the Lamb, which was dead from the start of the world.

Apocalypse 13:8 (Old Reign)

We do not only remain with this version:

Apocalypse 13:8 (Reign 1960)

8 and all the Earth inhabitants adored whose names were not written in the book of the life (A) of the Lamb that was immolated from the start of the world.

Lamentably in 1995 QUEEN VALERA, the end of the text was removed because the translators realized clearly that text made clear that if Jesus were immolated from the start of the world, that is to say, BEFORE BEING BORN, BEFORE the CROSS is because God speech of Jesus as if Jesus existed although did not exist. Phrases have twisted literally the word of God clearing to him that think that they do not agree with his doctrines.

But we understand well what the Word says: the lamb was immolated before the foundation of the world, was loved before fundaciòn of the world, we were loved and chosen before the foundation of the world BUT NOTHING OF THIS EXISTIO OBJECTIVELY before the foundation of the world but ONLY IN the MIND DE GOD.

But we understand that God calls to the things that are not, as if they were it, we are not understanding the Bible.

But we understand that Jesus only existed in the mind of God before being born, we are not reading clearly what the Bible says with respect to the plans of God.

If we are going to take each phrase in which some feeling or thought of God is mentioned towards Jesus before being born like NATIVE EXISTENCE PRE of Jesus, then we will have to think literally that also Jesus was crucified before being born, that all we existed, who Jeremías existed, and that king David existed before being born. It To the rest cannot be applied a rule to a text and be denied. Beautiful Biblical education is that in the MIND OF YAVÉ, ours loved Mesías it always existed, and always knew Yavé that would be crucified by us.

Also we existed in the mind of Yavé, and the coming Kingdom, because the flame the things that are not, as if they were it.

Jesus was born in the Earth, got here to exist. Ours You pull is a human being, generated by God, about which God had thought even before founding the world: This is what the Bible teaches.

Shalom

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